A particle bound in an infinite potential wall at $x=0$ will apply a force on the wall. For a plane wave and imagining it as a fluid bouncing off the reflection wall at $x=0$, find the force in terms of $\phi'(0)$, the derivative of wave function at $x=0$.
We know, for a reflecting fluid, $\textrm{force }= \frac{dp}{dt}$, where $p$ is momentum. Classically, $p=mv$. In our case, $v$ is $\hbar k/m$, the velocity of the plane wave. Instead of mass, we have $|\phi|^2dx$, the probability of finding the massive particle in an interval $dx$. So $p= \frac{\hbar k}{m}|\phi|^2 dx$. Then, force $f=\frac{dp}{dt} =\frac{d(|\phi|^2 dx \hbar k/m)}{dt}$
By the continuity equation, $\frac{d(|\phi|^2)}{dt}=-\frac{dj}{dx}$, where $j$ is probability current = $\hbar k/m |\phi|^2$. So $f=\frac{dp}{dt}=\left(\frac{\hbar k}{m}\right)^2 \frac{d(|\phi|^2)}{dx} = \frac{\hbar k}{m} 2 \phi \phi' dx$.
But for infinite potential, $\phi(0)=0$, so this gives 0. So I have an unwanted $\phi$ and a pesky $dx$ in my problem. I'm stumped for days, I'd appreciate all help. I'm fairly sure I should be getting an answer of force ~ $\phi'(0)^2$.
