I'd like to know if there is a special reason for limiting convention of polarization state to waves that can be split in just two components of equal frequency.
Tell me more
×
Physics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for
active researchers, academics and students of physics. It's 100% free, no registration required.
|
Galmeida, I think you are thinking of a Jones vector polarization formalism, which works for plane waves in a homogeneous, linear, anisotropic medium (like air, amorphous glass, or vacuum). The reasons they are defined this way are the following
This can be generalized (and has been) to a full 3-d vector and spectral (all wavelengths) polarization description. See Emil Wolf and his work on Coherence and Polarization or Goodman's Statistical Optics for more details... |
|||
|
|