This question is in reference to this paper: arXiv:1110.4386 [hep-th].
I would like to know what is the derivation or a reference to the proof of their crucial equation 2.3 (page 12).
In their analysis of fundamental fermions coupled to Chern-Simons theory, why have they been able to ignore the ghosts altogether? Does it have something to do with working in the light-cone gauge in which the self-interaction of the gauge field probably disappears and hence that removes the necessity to have ghosts?
Their Lagrangian is 2.1 (page 11) is massless and they say that they can always tune the bare mass to be $0$ and they can always ignore the mass of the fermion. Can someone elaborate on this? Why was this possible? Isn't this tantamount to assumption of conformality which they want to prove in the 't Hooft limit? (Then isn't the argument becoming circular?)
Similarly if this were a scalar field theory then in the same strain one might want to say that the quadratic and the quartic scalar interactions can always be held at zero - but again wouldn't that be an assumption of conformality in the 't Hooft limit?
What would be a genuine proof of conformality for this theory or its scalar version?
Is the scalar version of this theory somehow uninteresting or known?
In this paper whatever is claimed as the higher-spin currents seem to have their conservation laws broken in in $1/k$ or $1/N$, then isn't the theory interesting only when $k$ and $N$ are both infinite and then isn't that a trivial theory?
What sense does it make to say the Fermion $2$-point function depends on the 't Hooft coupling (as in equation 2.23 page 16)? Isn't that a non-physical quantity to talk of?