We know that according to the infinite parallel universe theory there is a different universe for any event possible event. Now I was wondering if all those universes form an exhaustive set. In other words are all the events represented by those universes?
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closed as not a real question by Qmechanic♦, Manishearth♦, Emilio Pisanty, Warrick Dec 26 '12 at 12:37
It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, see the FAQ.
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The nearest we have to a quantitative theory of multiple universes is the string landscape and the conventional wisdom is that there are $10^{500}$ different possible universes (well, $10^{500}$ different sets of physical laws: you could have multiple universes with the same physical laws). So there are only a finite (though absurdly large!) number of different universes. Whether this forms an "exhaustive set" depends on what you mean by the term. Assuming the string landscape is correct, there can only be $10^{500}$ different types of universe so they form an exhaustive set by definition - there can be no other universes with different physical laws. However you could imagine a universe with properties not found in the set of $10^{500}$ universes. It wouldn't be realised in nature. Later: I've had a sudden thought that you might be referring to the Many Worlds Interpretation of quantum mechanics. If so that's a rather different meaning of multiple universes. It's more like a space of possible configurations of this universe. If our universe is infinite then every configuration will be realised somewhere. If our universe is finite (e.g. because it closes on some large scale) then there are only a finite number of possible configurations. |
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