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We all know that in Rayleigh-Jeans law,

$$N(f)df ~=~ 8\pi f^2 df/c^3.$$

How do you derive $N(\lambda)d\lambda$?

I am sort of confused...

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1 Answer 1

by wave theory $ \lambda =vT $ and $ f=1/T $ the waves move to the speed of light so

$ f= \frac{c}{\lambda} $ then $ d\lambda = -\frac{cdf}{f^{2}} $ simply replace in your equation.

i believe he is referring to $ f= \nu = 2\pi \omega $

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I believe you mean $\omega = 2 \pi f$ –  kleingordon Aug 10 '12 at 22:09
    
yes i tried this but made a misteake :D sorry –  Jose Javier Garcia Aug 11 '12 at 8:58

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