We all know that in Rayleigh-Jeans law,
$$N(f)df ~=~ 8\pi f^2 df/c^3.$$
How do you derive $N(\lambda)d\lambda$?
I am sort of confused...
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We all know that in Rayleigh-Jeans law, $$N(f)df ~=~ 8\pi f^2 df/c^3.$$ How do you derive $N(\lambda)d\lambda$? I am sort of confused... |
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by wave theory $ \lambda =vT $ and $ f=1/T $ the waves move to the speed of light so $ f= \frac{c}{\lambda} $ then $ d\lambda = -\frac{cdf}{f^{2}} $ simply replace in your equation. i believe he is referring to $ f= \nu = 2\pi \omega $ |
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