# motion in the body-fixed frame?

This is really basic, I'm sure: For rigid body motion, Euler's equations refer to $L_i$ and $\omega_i$ as measured in the fixed-body frame. But that frame is just that: fixed in the body. So how could such an observer ever measure non-zero $L$ or $\omega$?

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Your reference is probably referring to the angular momentum and velocity of the fixed body frame relative to some inertial frame.

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But doesn't that make the body frame inertial -- and isn't the whole point of the Euler equations that they take into account non-inertial "psuedo-torques"? An observer on a spinning object is certainly non-inertial. And in fact, the precession of a free symmetric top is observable by an observer in the body frame: earth's $\omega$ precesses in cone once every 300-400 days. –  gilonik Jul 25 '12 at 17:10
That helps, thanks. The resolution must be in the instantaneous/infinitesimal caveat. So maybe I just can't picture it. Here's the point: why isn't the body-fixed frame the "rotational rest frame"? I know it isn't: The free precession of the earth shows that we in the body-fixed frame observe an $\vec{L}$ even though we're rotating with the earth. That this $\vec{L}$ differs in magnitude (and direction?) from that observed in the space-fixed frame is fine; that it's non-zero is where I'm getting mixed up. –  gilonik Jul 25 '12 at 20:34