If it requires infinite amount of energy to travel at the speed of light then how photon attains this speed? Its source is never infinitely sourced.
|
Massless particles don't need infinite energy to jump at $c$. Photons don't have rest mass as they don't interact with Higgs field. What you have heard is applied only for mass. The whole thing works like this: So, at higher speed, we need higher energy to accelerate mass because it has been increased.
Note: While the answer is fine for general massless particle, its not good for photons (ask relativistic physicists). Relativistic equations have $c$ due to the fact that it is a postulate of Einstein that photons already have this speed. So, its not good for us to get to there in reverse. |
|||||||||||
|
That's not quite right. You're thinking of the energy required to accelerate a massive object to $c$ which is impossible thus the infinity. However, there is no reference frame in which photons are at rest. An object with speed $c$ in one frame has speed $c$ in all frames (thus the invariant speed). |
|||
|
|
|
Here is a good article on the mass of the photon, which answers your question. http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/physics/ParticleAndNuclear/photon_mass.html The concept of relativistic mass is just a construct. A particle only has one mass; its rest mass and it is constant. It does not increase with particle velocity. This article, The Concept of Mass, should help explain. https://www.worldscientific.com/phy_etextbook/6833/6833_02.pdf The Wikipedia article on "Mass in special relativity" is very good also. Here is a quote from an expert on the subject.
— Albert Einstein in letter to Lincoln Barnett, 19 June 1948 |
|||||||||||
|
Photons, like gluons, are massless particles. When we speak of 'massless', we mean the rest mass or invariant mass of an object. That is, this quantity is constant to all observers. Photons can travel in the speed of light c because of this property (being massless). If not, then it will require an infinite amount of energy to make a photon with mass travel at the speed of light. |
|||
|
|
|
According to special relativity $$ \frac vc = \frac {pc}E = \frac {pc}{\sqrt{(mc^2)^2+(pc)^2}} $$ For $m=0$ we have $pc=E$ and thus $v=c$, whereas for $m\not=0$ we have $pc<E$ and thus $v<c$. |
||||
|
|
protected by Qmechanic♦ Jan 9 at 19:54
This question is protected to prevent "thanks!", "me too!", or spam answers by new users. To answer it, you must have earned at least 10 reputation on this site.