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Is Loschmidt's paradox a paradox even today?

In other words, is the paradox resolved or not?

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marked as duplicate by Qmechanic May 5 '13 at 9:21

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

Possible duplicate: – Qmechanic Jun 29 '12 at 9:53
Well, for finite bounded closed systems, there's Poincare recurrences... – user10176 Jun 29 '12 at 9:59
No, it is considered irrelevant today. See, e.g., this paper. Of course, this does not imply that the problem of the foundations of statistical physics has been settled (in particular, the proper interpretation of probabilities in the theory). – Yvan Velenik Jun 29 '12 at 14:08

In my opinion it is not solved. It is based on Boltzmann H-theorem which is highly critical. It is though that the wrong assumption which leads to the paradox is the Stosszahlansatz

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No, the resolution of this "paradox" has nothing to do with the H-theorem. See the refs in my comment above. – Yvan Velenik Aug 19 '12 at 8:25

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