My physics knowledge is (sadly) very infinitesimal and I have a question about a calculation which I think is wrong, but want to be sure.
I tried to calculate the potential of a finite line charge. According to my understanding, this is simply done by integrating point charges along the line. When I do that, I get something that looks like this (lines are the equipotential lines)

This plot makes intuitive sense to me since the potential computation is basically convolving a $1/\|x\|$ function with a "wide" delta pulse which I expect to look like this.
The integration result is
$$\frac{\lambda}{4\pi\varepsilon_{0}}\log\left(\frac{\sqrt{x_{2}^{2}+\left(a-x_{1}\right)^{2}}+x_{1}-a}{\sqrt{x_{2}^{2}+\left(b-x_{1}\right)^{2}}+x_{1}-b}\right)$$ where $(x_1,x_2)$ are the coordinates where the potenial is computed and (a,b) are the limits of the line charge that lives on the x-axis.
However, many calculations that I found on the web (e.g. this one) obtain a result that is independent of the abscissa. First I thought that their result might only hold for x-values between the ends of the line, but even then the potential should not be independent of the abscissa.
Am I getting something important wrong here? Thanks in advance!
