In classical mechanics for two mass particles $a$,$b$ we assume the symmetric potential arising from $F_{ab}$ and $F_{ab}$ given by $$U_{ab}(r)=-\int^{r}_{r_{0}}F_{ab}(r')dr'$$ and $$U_{ba}(r)=-\int^{r}_{r_{0}}F_{ba}(r')dr'$$
The book mechanics by Florian Scheck gives $$\frac{d}{dt}r_{a}\nabla_{a}U_{ab}+\frac{d}{dt}r_{b}\nabla_{b}U_{ba}=\frac{d}{dt}U_{ab}$$ because $$[\frac{d}{dt}r_{a}\nabla_{a}+\frac{d}{dt}r_{b}\nabla_{b}]U_{ab}=\frac{d}{dt}U_{ab}$$
I am confused how we get the summation form. My derivation goes as follows: Notice $F_{ab}=-\nabla_{b} U_{ab}$. Thus we should have $$\frac{d}{dt}U_{ab}=\frac{d}{dr}*\frac{dr}{dt}U_{ab}=\frac{dr}{dt}\frac{d}{dr}U_{ab}=\frac{dr}{dt}[-F_{ab}]=\frac{d}{dt}[r_{a}-r_{b}][-F_{ab}]=[\frac{d}{dt}r_{a}\nabla_{a}+\frac{d}{dt}r_{b}\nabla_{b}]U_{ab}$$
My simple question is just whether my derviation is correct, for I assume $r=r_{a}-r_{b}$ at here.