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I was talking to a professor in my institution which works in Lorentz Violation of various QF theories.

While we talk about a SUSY lagrangian, I asked him if we could have a fermion acquiring VEV and break the Lorentz invariance of the theory.

He told me that, it implies a CONSTANT FERMION and it does not make sense. And I'm wondering now, does it or does it not?

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    $\begingroup$ Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/108112/2451 and links therein. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic ♦
    May 18, 2016 at 2:04
  • $\begingroup$ @Qmechanic, well they say that it breaks L invariance, but I'm asking, if I want to see some violation in this symmetry CAUSED by something like that, why it wouldn't make sense. $\endgroup$
    – IamZack
    May 18, 2016 at 3:25
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    $\begingroup$ I never heard "constant fermion" before. I guess you would have to ask him what he means... $\endgroup$
    – AccidentalFourierTransform
    May 18, 2016 at 17:18

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