This is because you're not talking about a normalized wavefunction.
The wavefunction only has a physical meaning when it is interpreted as probability. The value of $\psi\bar\psi=|\psi|^2$ at a point is proportional to the probability of the wavefunction collapsing to any given point.
Since it's just proportional, we can multiply it by an arbitrary constant and not change it's physical meaning.
What we can consider is the normalised wavefunction. In this, we multiply $\psi$ by some complex constant $A$, such that the sum of all the $\psi\bar\psi$ over space is $1$--in this way, $\psi\bar\psi$ becomes the probabilty, instead of just being proportional.
In other words, we find $A$ such that $$\int (A\psi)(\bar A\bar\psi)\mathrm dV=|A|^2\int|\psi|^2\mathrm dV=1$$
Of course, you can see that we still have infinite solutions--since $A$ is a complex number, it can be any number lying on the circle of radius $\frac{1}{\sqrt{\int|\psi|^2\mathrm dV}}$ on the Argand(complex) plane.
But that's no issue--that just means that we can have a phase difference (not sure of this). Its like the phase is a normal wave--changing the phase in a normal sinusoidal wave($Asin(\omega t+\large{\phi)}$, where $\phi$ is the phase constant) doesn't change the wave, it only changes the "where the wave started", or our choice of origin. We get similar things with an integration constant.