# What's the meaning of the coupling change after a renormalization (in the 1-dim Ising Model)?

What does it mean that after the theory (1-dim Ising model here, but the question is general) is renormalized one time and $g_i\rightarrow g_i'$, that the couplings are weaker, even if the theory is still the same theory, just reformulated?

It is said that it can now be viewed at a theory at high temperatures $-$ the theory flowing with the renormalization group towards a critical point. But what does that mean that it's actually still the same theory? The unrenormalized theory itself gives different results at different temperatures, right?

So how does this fit together?

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