# Force and Laws of Motion [closed]

While catching a fast moving cricket ball, why do fielders gradually pull back their hands backwards with the moving ball? Please advice which among the following is the correct answer. If both are incorrect kindly give the correct answer:

A: By pulling the hands backward the fielder increases the time during which the high velocity of the moving ball decreases to 0. Thus, the acceleration of the ball is decreased and therefore the impact of catching the fast moving ball is also reduced.

B: By pulling the hand backwards, the fielder gradually and continuously decreases the momentum of the moving ball and thereby reducing the velocity to zero.

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Hi Ram, and welcome to Physics Stack Exchange! What are your thoughts on this? What have you tried to do to figure out the correct answer and why doesn't it work? If you edit your question to include that I'll be happy to reopen it. –  David Z Feb 9 '12 at 17:13
Dear David, I've already got a response to my question and the answer is in line with my thinking. Further, thank you for informing me that the question has been closed as it is too localized. I would appreciate if could kindly inform me what that means. For your very kind information, I am a student studying in class 9 in a school in India. Eagerly awaiting your response. –  Ram Sidharth Feb 9 '12 at 17:24
Actually A and B are the same thing.. –  Manishearth Feb 9 '12 at 18:21
Ram, the problem is that (1) this question is written in such a way as to be useless to anyone else who is not solving the exact same problem, and (2) you appear to have put no effort into it. Have a look at our homework policy for more information. –  David Z Feb 9 '12 at 18:50
Thank you for your responses. –  Ram Sidharth Feb 9 '12 at 19:36

## closed as too localized by David Z♦Feb 9 '12 at 17:13

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Let $\vec{a_1}$ be the acceleration of the ball in the initial frame of reference and $\vec{a_2}$ the acceleration of the hands. The resulting force with the hands moving backwards $\vec{F_{backwards}} = m*(\vec{a_1}-\vec{a_2}$) will be lower than the force without : $\vec{F} = m*\vec{a_1}$.