# Is the axial gauge with a $\xi$ term useful in Yang-Mills theory?

i) Do people use axial gauge with a $\xi$ term? When $\xi\neq 0$, ghosts do not decouple, but maybe it's still useful?

ii) Is it proved that the term $\frac 1 {2\xi}(n.A)^2$ in the Lagrangian does not renormalize, for $\xi=0$ and $\xi\neq 0$?

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There is no problem with this gauge: you are specifying one component of A to be a fixed random variable. I don't know if people use it. – Ron Maimon Jan 6 '12 at 7:35