# Electrophorus: Why can't we use a magnet in substituion of a charged body to induce the polarization?

Since a magnetic field can induce a current in a coil, moving electrons from one side to another. Why isn't possible to use the same principle in a electrophorus using one magnet instead of charged body?

What's the difference between induction with magnetics and a negatively charged body?

P.S: I'm not asking for clarification about the difference about a magnetic field and a electric filed. Maybe it's related, but my point is that if both can induce charges, why it cannot act as a substitution on a electrophorus?

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The difference is between English and other, more selective laguages, where the electrostatic "induction" is called influence, thus avoiding such questions. Even in portugese its called influencia, look here in the worldreference pages for influence machines: coe.ufrj.br/~acmq/eletrostatica.html –  Georg Dec 3 '11 at 22:59
@Georg The question remains the same. And in Portuguese (Brazil) it's not called "influencia" pt.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indução_eletromagnética. Can't see the difference though. Can you post a answer? I would appreciate. (P.S: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_induction) –  TPH. Dec 4 '11 at 1:57
@Georg the link you have provided doesn't work. Also, I have misspelled it. I actually meant induce, not "induct". –  TPH. Dec 4 '11 at 2:08
@Georg Now it's working. But the "influence" usage, at last here, is an exception. "Electrostatic induction" is all over the web. But, I still do not see the difference between influence and induction. Can you point it out for me, please? –  TPH. Dec 4 '11 at 5:57

A static magnetic field does not exert a force on charged particles. For there to be a force from a static magnetic field, the particle must be moving. Per WP: Lorentz force, $\mathbf{F} = q[\mathbf{E} + (\mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B})]$; note that if $\mathbf{v}$ is 0 then $\mathbf{B}$ contributes nothing. –  Kevin Reid Dec 4 '11 at 13:53