I read that
$(FF(f))(x)=2\pi f(-x)$, where $F$ is the Fourier transform
and $F(f(x-a))(k)=\exp(-ika) X(k)$ where $X(k)=F(f(x))$
implies $F(\exp(iax)f(x))(k)=X(k-a)$.
But I don't see how that is done... I am quite happy with getting $F^{-1}X(k-a)=\exp(iax)f(x)$ by brute force calculation. I would like to see how to use duality though.