A non-relativistic ideal gas exerts a pressure at the surface of its container
$p = \frac13 \rho \langle v^2 \rangle$
where $\rho$ is the mass density of the gas and $\langle v^2 \rangle$ is the average square of the Maxwell velocity distribution. This is the relation for the pressure at the boundary of the vessel containing the ideal gas.
However, if one were to place an infinitesimal "test" area inside the boundary of the vessel the momentum flux across that area would be 0 since the distribution of velocities is symmetric. That is, as many particles would cross one way across the area as cross the opposite way. This suggests that the pressure inside an ideal gas is 0.
In general relativity an ideal gas is usually presented as an example of a perfect fluid, that is one with stress energy tensor equal to
$T_{\mu \nu} = \left( \begin{array}{cccc} \rho & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & p & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & p &0 \\ 0& 0 & 0 & p \end{array} \right) $
Since the stress energy tensor should be a local function it seems strange to assign to $p$ (in the frame in which the velocity distribution is isotropic) in the above equation the value of the pressure at the boundary of the vessel.
I can see why this is done: one wants the stress energy tensor to be a smooth function, and also it should be that a gas at finite temperature should gravitate more than a gas at zero temperature (dust)... however this is point is not articulated, in for instance MTW.
Perhaps I am missing something elementary?