A pollen particle has no charge so I cannot understand how the Lorentz force $\bar{F} = q \bar{E} + q(\bar{v} \times \bar{B} )$ could explain the event. I speculated that it is because of the electric field that is generated to the dipole with a charge in the TV and the distance, more here. I have not yet confirmed that it would attract the pollen particle. Any better ideas?
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CRT displays have a fairly strong electric charge and this induces a dipole moment in the pollen particle itself causing it to be attracted to the screen. Somewhat related, the hairs on the bodies of some bees become electrically charged and this attracts pollen particles. Exercise 51 on page 602 of this document http://cyber.gwc.cccd.edu/faculty/kstein/H_R_Ch_22.pdf will give you a ball park figure for the possible strength of this attraction. It assumes a neutral pollen particle. |
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I do not know to what special pollen your professor refers to, but pollen is often charged at least as this measurement described in the publication abstract found:
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"charge is zero"as $\sum_{i} q_{i} =0$, you can still have partial charges due to the electric field with the dipole (momentary charges on the particle). So $\bar{E}$ covered here formatted so $\bar{F} = q\bar{E}$ attracts the pollen to the TV, at least. What about the magnetic field? – hhh Aug 30 '11 at 15:23