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When a charged particle gets accelerated it emits electromagnetic waves. In reality, when a charged particle gets accelerated the electric field around the charge remains unchanged, but the magnetic field changes. Here the energy provided to the particle - by the energy source accelerating it - gets divided into the energy contained in the increased magnetic field and EMWs radiated. But I don't understand the mechanism by which these EMWs are emitted. I have read that when a charged particle gets accelerated the electromagnetic field associated with it gets detached from it and this detached electromagnetic field is that we call electromagnetic waves.

So is it that, when the charged particle gets accelerated, some part of the magnetic field associated with it gets detached from it and simultaneously (but apart from the effect of the event described above) the magnetic field associated with the charged particle gets changed according to the amount of energy being supplied or being taken away by the external source accelerating the charge particle? Thus, in the entire process the electric field around the charge particle remains constant. Is it so?

If this is true, then do we have to assume that the magnetic field being detached itself and instantaneously gets converted into EMW of the corresponding energy? But then I get again the same question: By which mechanism?

Also I thought of an entirely different mechanism: When the charged particle gets accelerated some part of its electric field as well as some part of its magnetic field gets detached from the charged particle and that itself is the EMW. And simultaneously (but apart from the effect of the event described above) both the magnetic field & electric field associated with the charged particle gets changed according to the amount of energy being supplied or being taken away by the external source accelerating the charge particle? But here is one more problem: If we are assuming that the electric field is decaying into the EMWs, we will have to consider the contribution of the externally accelerating source to increase the electric field of the charge particle regardless the charge is being accelerated or decelerated. As far as I think, this cannot be done directly. We should assume the contribution of the external source to increase the magnetic field associated with the charge and its instantaneous conversion into electric field. Now again, same question: By which mechanism? So overall I have complete unclarity about the mechanism of the production of EMWs when a charge particle gets accelerated.

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marked as duplicate by ACuriousMind, Ali, Kyle Kanos, Brandon Enright, Qmechanic Jul 30 at 4:16

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Hi Dvij! I have edited your question since it was flagged "unclear what you're asking": I broke it up into paragraphs, fixed formatting and edited the title into what (I think) you are actually asking. I would ask you kindly to think more carefully about wording your question in the future instead of just dumping your thoughts into the question box. Also, use proper punctuation and paragraphs. The unhealthy amount of "..." and "??" and the like your question had is very unpleasant to the reader's eye and mind, and makes it unlikely many people even read through it, let alone comprehend it. –  ACuriousMind Jul 29 at 21:27

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If you're asking about how the mathematical model we use to explain electromagnetic interactions predicts EM radiation, this involves a bunch of math that you can look up on Wikipedia.

It sounds like you are looking for a philosophical explanation, however. "Mechanism" may not be the right word to use to describe electromagnetic field theory. We have some concise mathematics that allows us to predict and control (with incredible accuracy) electromagnetic phenomena. But there isn't a good general answer for (for example): "Why does electricity have two charges and magnetism have no charges?"; apart from a direct appeal to anthropic principle (i.e. because this is likely the simplest way for a universe to end up with sapient beings in it).

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