my question concerns the interaction of light and matter in a semi-classical approach. (Quantized Atoms, Classical Fields)
In the Coulomb gauge (div A = 0 , $\phi$=0) we have $E = -\frac{1}{c}\partial_{t}A$ and $B = rot(A)$.
Let's now consider a system of N charged particles (all denoted by an index k).
Let $H_{0}$ be the unperturbed time-independent Hamiltonian and suppose that the eigenvalue problem corresponding to this Hamiltoninan is solved.
Let $H_{1}=-\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{e_{k}}{m_{k} c} A(x_{k},t) \cdot p_{k} + \sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{e_{k}^2}{2 m_{k} c^2} A(x_{k},t)^{2}$ be the time-dependent pertubation.
The atom is now placed at the origin. The wavelength of the considered light is large compared to the diameter of the atom. Hence we have approximately $A_(x_{k},t)\psi(x_{1},...,x_{n}) \approx A_(0,t)\psi(x_{1},...,x_{n})$. (Note that the atom is placed at the origin).
Now the second term in the perturbed Hamiltonian $H_{1}(t)$ (proportional to A^{2}) is of the form $\lambda \cdot f(t)$ for some real number $\lambda$ and some scalar time-dependent function f(t) using this approximation.
Nowit is said that this term only causes a phase factor in the wave function $\phi_{I}(t)$ viewed in the interaaction picture. I don't really understand why that is the case. A time -depnedent Hamiltonian does not trigger in genereal a propagator of the form exp( i*...) .
Can someone help me with this question??
Thanks in advance for the responses.
