I have often read that renormalizability and scale invariance are somehow related. For example in this tutorial on page 12 in the first sentence of point (7), self similarity (= scale invariance ?) is referred to as the non-perturbative equivalent of renormalizability.
I don't understand what this exactly means. Can one say that all renormalizable theories are scale invariant but the converse, that every scale invariant theory is renormalizable too, is not true? I'm quite confused and I'd be happy if somebody could (in some detail) explain to me what the exact relationship between scale invariance and renormalizability is.